Could anyone please help me with this? Define the function g(x) = anti derivative of t^2 * cos(t) dt top value = 1/x^2 bottom value = 0 a) solve using FTC b) solve using intergration by parts
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Originally Posted by Lupus7874 Could anyone please help me with this? Define the function g(x) = anti derivative of t^2 * cos(t) dt top value = 1/x^2 bottom value = 0 a) solve using FTC b) solve using intergration by parts a) You want . Let . Then from the chain rule: and you should be able to do the necessary calculations. b) Use integration by parts twice. It should be clear what choices to make (Hint: You want to end up integrating only a trig function).
I'm rather confused on the whole methodology of this problem, any chance someone could walk me through it? I mean assuming I substitute what you said, I'm still lost on how to take the antiderivative of a product
Last edited by Lupus7874; Dec 7th 2009 at 06:04 AM. Reason: Insufficient Data
Originally Posted by Lupus7874 I'm rather confused on the whole methodology of this problem, any chance someone could walk me through it? I mean assuming I substitute what you said, I'm still lost on how to take the antiderivative of a product I told you exactly how to get the solution: . is found using the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (then substitute back ). Getting from should be trivial at the level you're apparently studying. I don't see where the trouble can be in this ....
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