the limit of (x tan (1/x)) as x aproaches 0 from the right side Im sorry, I dont know how to put it in LaTex Fomat :/ My first thought is to place x as and take the derivative of but it doesn't seem right.
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This one does not appear to exist. Look at the graph and you can see.
Originally Posted by galactus This one does not appear to exist. Look at the graph and you can see. in the book it says the answer is 1...but i don't see how they approached the problem...
Originally Posted by >_<SHY_GUY>_< in the book it says the answer is 1...but i don't see how they approached the problem... wait, I Am Very Sorry, it is the limit as it approaches infinity
Here is a graph of it. I do not know where they got 1. It looks undefined to me.
Originally Posted by galactus Here is a graph of it. I do not know where they got 1. It looks undefined to me. its an error, it aproaches infinity, does that change the problem?
Originally Posted by >_<SHY_GUY>_< wait, I Am Very Sorry, it is the limit as it approaches infinity OK. That's different then. L'Hopital:
Originally Posted by >_<SHY_GUY>_< wait, I Am Very Sorry, it is the limit as it approaches infinity
Originally Posted by galactus OK. That's different then. L'Hopital: How did you tan^2? I got lost after that :/ Originally Posted by skeeter I was doing just like how you were doing it, but i got stuck in the last part: sec^2 (1/x) to make it clear, is (1/x) as x approaches infinity, is 0? what if it was approaches 0? [just 1/x]
It's the same thing only different
Originally Posted by galactus It's the same thing only different wait, then wouldn't it be 1 + 1 + tan^2? what happened to x?
Now,
Hello, >_<SHY_GUY>_<! Let Then we have: .
Originally Posted by Soroban Hello, >_<SHY_GUY>_<! Let Then we have: . Thank You Soroban! :] Long Time No See Im Not A Fan Of Substitution because i never get it right, but you made a good point
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