Why is that
Can anyone kindly explain it?
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Why is that
Can anyone kindly explain it?
Sorry the expression was wrong in my last post. Edited one is :
I found them Thomas' Calculus solution book as part of solving a integral(Chapter 8.8 exercise9). But why are they equal?
Because ln(x) is continous for every
Can you elaborate on this?Quote:
Because ln(x) is continous for every![]()
The function is not discontinuous on any interval greater than 0, or does not have any asymptotic holes on intervals greater than 0, simply look at the graph as x is > 0 and it continues to reach infinity in terms of limits
Finding the graph is simple, just use a calculator or manually find the "sequence of terms" for each x, like x = 1, x = 2, x = 3...and so on to make the graph and youll see why
Thanks hjortur and RockHard. I get it now.(Happy)
One of the definitions/implications of continuity is that if you have a sequencesuch that
, then