is this true or false? Explain why. I think it is not true because the interval is unbounded. However, I cannot explain why.
If thats true, I am not quite sure how this problem is done. The complete problem is
I appreciate your help a lot. The next thing, is to take limit of n on both sides. Does that mean right hand limit at 0 and left hand limit at 0? Please let me know how the problem ends up with 1 as value of integral when it should be 0?
It's true that uniform convergence allows you to interchange the limit and the integral, but only on a bounded interval $\displaystyle [a,b]$. (The proof of the theorem uses the value $\displaystyle b-a$, which makes no sense if $\displaystyle b=\infty$.)