The answer to this question is "yes" (I don't know why), because the second part asks:Suppose f satisfies $\displaystyle \lim_{x->0^+}f(x)=+\infty$. Is it possible the sequence {$\displaystyle f(\frac{1}{n})$} converges? Explain.

I don't really understand why the answer is yes. The only function I can think of that goes to infinty as x goes to 0 is $\displaystyle \frac{1}{x^n}$.Find a function f that

supports this theory.