Well, going with the hint you could argue that since f(x) is continuous in, for any
, then f is uniformly continuous there, so
, and then: taking a partition P with n points of
s.t.
, we get
.
Of course, we still need to deal with, but this is not problem: the difference
can be made as little as wanted.
Now, not going with the hint is much simpler and shorter, but perhaps you guys haven't yet studied this: f is Riemann integrable there since it is bounded and the set of points of discontinuities of f in [0,1] (which is one single point) has (Borel-Lebesgue) measure zero.
Tonio