is this statement true?

If f'(x)=0 for all http://newton.science.sfu.ca/cgi-bin/mimetex.cgi?x in an interval (a, b), then f(x)=0 for all x in the interval (a, b).

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- October 28th 2009, 06:08 PMBaatataMean Value Theorem
is this statement true?

If f'(x)=0 for all http://newton.science.sfu.ca/cgi-bin/mimetex.cgi?x in an interval (a, b), then f(x)=0 for all x in the interval (a, b). - October 28th 2009, 06:10 PMskeeter
- October 28th 2009, 06:10 PMrn443
- October 28th 2009, 06:16 PMArturo_026
If f(x)=0 implies that f'(x)=0 .

However, the same can be said for any constant c.

Thus, f(x) = c implies that f'(x)=0.