a) Suppose that (xn)n=1 to infinity is a sequence, and that for all n > 100 we have xn = 1/n. Prove
that xn converges to zero. b).Now suppose that (xn)n=1 to infinity is any sequence that converges to zero and that (yn)n=1 to infinity is a sequence. Further, suppose that yn = xn for all n > 100. Prove that yn converges to zero. How do i answer this part? I think the proof for the above part b) is similiar to part a) since yn = xn? for a) choose any
(thanks to tonio this forum)
Thank you for any help in advance.