Hi all, Can anybody show me how to get to this point I have tried a million different ways and don't know how it is done???? any help will be very greatly appreciated
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Originally Posted by davefulton Hi all, Can anybody show me how to get to this point I have tried a million different ways and don't know how it is done???? any help will be very greatly appreciated let v=x(\pi -x ) and du =sin(nx) , dv=(\pi -x ) -x .. u =-cos(nx)/n the two integrals have the same idea by parts let v=(\pi -x) and du=cos(nx) ...dv=-1 u=sin(nx)/n in the first integral let v=x and du=cos(nx) ....dv=1 u=sin(nx)/n in the second integral
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