lim (x-->0) xe^cos(pi/x)
any help is appreciated!
I'm not 100% sure if this is right but this is certainly what I would do...
Since we have...
.
So taking limits as x->0 we get...
.
So by the squeeze theorem. .
Think that's right but hopefully someone will drop by to confirm.
I also checked the limit with MAPLE and it came out to be 0 as well.