No,Idon't- you do!

Write this equation in "operator form" as which can then be factored as

Since the derivative of [itex]e^{-t}[/itex] is [itex]-e^{-t}[/itex] it can be "annihilated" by D+1: [itex](D+1)(4e^{-t}= 0[/itex]. That tells us that so . Can you solve that?

The general solution to that will have three unknown constants.Oneof them will be determined by the fact that y must actually satisfy the original equation.

Any help is appreciated. Thank you!

--Rachel