(sequence fro n=1 to infinity of above)

just wondering how to use the squeeze theorem to show this converges to 0?

for the greater than or equal to fxn, maybe use n as the numerator? (since sqrt n less than or equal to n for n=1 to infinity)

also for the lesser than or equal fxn, I thought perhaps, just 1 on the numerator (sqrt n greater than or equal to 1 for n=1 to infinity)

thank you!