If P is a point on C and rsub1 and rsub2 are smooth parametrization of C, then the tangent vector for rsub1 at P is the same as the tangent vector for rsub2 at P.
True or false.
And why?
Thank you very much.
If P is a point on C and rsub1 and rsub2 are smooth parametrization of C, then the tangent vector for rsub1 at P is the same as the tangent vector for rsub2 at P.
True or false.
And why?
Thank you very much.