Hi: how could one prove that if a_n --> A and A != 0 then a_(n+1)/a_n --> 1 ? I think some average inequalities could help here but I can't see it. Thanx
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Originally Posted by tonio Hi: how could one prove that if a_n --> A and A != 0 then a_(n+1)/a_n --> 1 ? I think some average inequalities could help here but I can't see it. Thanx For large enough , Taking (and noting that ) gives us: which proves the theorem. An easier, though less technical way of doing is noting that
Huge. thanx a bunch, Redsoxfan
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