Hi:
how could one prove that if a_n --> A and A != 0 then
a_(n+1)/a_n --> 1 ?
I think some average inequalities could help here but I can't see it.
Thanx
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Hi:
how could one prove that if a_n --> A and A != 0 then
a_(n+1)/a_n --> 1 ?
I think some average inequalities could help here but I can't see it.
Thanx
Huge. thanx a bunch, Redsoxfan