I have to show that goes to 1 as . I have that I know that via the binomial theorem. If I can show that , I could use the Squeeze theorem. Any ideas?
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Originally Posted by dannyboycurtis I have to show that goes to 1 as . I have that I know that via the binomial theorem. If I can show that , I could use the Squeeze theorem. Any ideas? If you know doesn't that help you with ? If you can show you'll be done right? You will use the product of convergent sequences theorem.
Originally Posted by dannyboycurtis I have to show that goes to 1 as . I have that I know that via the binomial theorem. If I can show that , I could use the Squeeze theorem. Any ideas? Yes: .
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