given: a_n = b_(n+1) - b_n
[if the limit of a_n = 0, then (b_n) has a limit] = FALSE.
please provide a counterexample. with all my heart i think the converse is true. if have already proven the converse of the converse.
i have no idea where to even begin, since it seems obvious that ... should the difference between consecutive terms approach zero, then the terms approach an agreeable limit...
i.e. i keep coming up with sequences that actually DO converge (e.g. (-1)^n/n ...)