Originally Posted by

**Skerven** given: a_n = b_(n+1) - b_n

[if the limit of a_n = 0, then (b_n) has a limit] = FALSE.

please provide a counterexample. with all my heart i think the converse is true. if have already proven the converse of the converse.

i have no idea where to even begin, since it seems obvious that ... should the difference between consecutive terms approach zero, then the terms approach an agreeable limit...

i.e. i keep coming up with sequences that actually DO converge (e.g. (-1)^n/n ...)