Originally Posted by

**amma0913** Hi everyone, I need some help with two limit law questions.

1. Is it possible for the limit of f(x)*g(x) as x-->a to exist even if lim f(x) as x-->a and lim g(x) x-->a do not exist?

2. Is it possible for the limit of f(x)+g(x) as x-->a to exist even if lim f(x) as x-->a and lim g(x) as x-->a do not exist?

I know the first one is true, but I can't think of an example. Could someone please explain if either question is true or false and give an example that justifies their reason?

Thanks.