Thread: Limit Law Questions

Hi everyone, I need some help with two limit law questions.

1. Is it possible for the limit of f(x)*g(x) as x-->a to exist even if lim f(x) as x-->a and lim g(x) x-->a do not exist?

2. Is it possible for the limit of f(x)+g(x) as x-->a to exist even if lim f(x) as x-->a and lim g(x) as x-->a do not exist?

I know the first one is true, but I can't think of an example. Could someone please explain if either question is true or false and give an example that justifies their reason?

Thanks.

Originally Posted by amma0913

Hi everyone, I need some help with two limit law questions.

1. Is it possible for the limit of f(x)*g(x) as x-->a to exist even if lim f(x) as x-->a and lim g(x) x-->a do not exist?

I cannot think of an example where both limits do not exist by limit of f(x)g(x) does but if f(x)= x, g(x)= 1/x, the limit of g(x), as x goes to 0, does not exist while f(x)g(x)= x(1/x)= 1 so its limit is 1.

2. Is it possible for the limit of f(x)+g(x) as x-->a to exist even if lim f(x) as x-->a and lim g(x) as x-->a do not exist?

Look at f(x)= 1/x, g(x)= -1/x, as x goes to 0.

I know the first one is true, but I can't think of an example. Could someone please explain if either question is true or false and give an example that justifies their reason?

Thanks.

Originally Posted by amma0913

Hi everyone, I need some help with two limit law questions.

1. Is it possible for the limit of f(x)*g(x) as x-->a to exist even if lim f(x) as x-->a and lim g(x) x-->a do not exist?

2. Is it possible for the limit of f(x)+g(x) as x-->a to exist even if lim f(x) as x-->a and lim g(x) as x-->a do not exist?

I know the first one is true, but I can't think of an example. Could someone please explain if either question is true or false and give an example that justifies their reason?

Thanks.

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CB