It's similar to something I posted before but how would I show that the integral from 0 to x of h(t)sin(x-t)dt exists? I'm sure it's similar but the same with the integral from 0 to x of h(t)cos(x-t)dt
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Originally Posted by James234 It's similar to something I posted before but how would I show that the integral from 0 to x of h(t)sin(x-t)dt exists? What do you mean, "exists"? Do you means the Riemann integral exists? If that then yes it is true if is continous. Thus, since is continous and is continous thus is their product. And hence any continous function is Riemann integratable.
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