Ok, so I wonder wether or not I have done this correctly:

It would be of great help to me.

I have the Cobb-Douglas function

Were x is produced quantum and n is the input labour.

First question: Is the inverse function ? and does that equal: ?

So the cost function then, were w is the price of labour: wn =

Second Question: Is the derivative of the inverse function (if Ive done correctly on the first question):