Ok, so I wonder wether or not I have done this correctly:
It would be of great help to me.
I have the Cobb-Douglas function
Were x is produced quantum and n is the input labour.
First question: Is the inverse function ? and does that equal: ?
So the cost function then, were w is the price of labour: wn =
Second Question: Is the derivative of the inverse function (if Ive done correctly on the first question):