Ok, so I wonder wether or not I have done this correctly:

It would be of great help to me.

I have the Cobb-Douglas function $\displaystyle x=An^e$

Were x is produced quantum and n is the input labour.

First question: Is the inverse function $\displaystyle n=(x/A)^{1/e}$ ? and does that equal: $\displaystyle n=(1/A^{1/e})(x^{1/e})$ ?

So the cost function then, were w is the price of labour: wn = $\displaystyle (w/A^{1/e})(x^{1/e})$

Second Question: Is the derivative of the inverse function (if Ive done correctly on the first question):

$\displaystyle (w/eA^{1/e})(x^{(1/e)-1})$