See figure attached for problem statement.
See 2nd figure in 2nd post for my attempt at the problem.
My attempt at the problem is attached below. Are there any mistakes? My strategy for the mustangs was to pull all the costs and salvage values back to present worth terms and then annuitize(is that a word?) everything over the 10 year peroid.
Still looking for help on this one, I am finding the scenario in the question very confusing.
Here is another attempt at the EAC of the mustang.
For this attempt the approach I took was to calculate the present worth of all costs/salvages over the 10 year peroid and then amortize them over the 10 years as a yearly annuity.
Is this attempt correct?