Hi downthesun01!
The solution is
See here:
2=\frac{1-(\frac{1}{1+x})^{40}}{x} - Wolfram|Alpha
Indeed, solving it analytically is not going to work out.
Hi downthesun01!
The solution is
See here:
2=\frac{1-(\frac{1}{1+x})^{40}}{x} - Wolfram|Alpha
Indeed, solving it analytically is not going to work out.