How can I solve somthing like this for i
$\displaystyle 2=\frac{1-(\frac{1}{1+i})^{40}}{i}$
The textbook I'm looking simply states that it's "difficult" to solve by and that it's best to just use a financial calculator.
How can I solve somthing like this for i
$\displaystyle 2=\frac{1-(\frac{1}{1+i})^{40}}{i}$
The textbook I'm looking simply states that it's "difficult" to solve by and that it's best to just use a financial calculator.
Hi downthesun01!
The solution is $\displaystyle i \approx 0.499999954781082$
See here:
2=\frac{1-(\frac{1}{1+x})^{40}}{x} - Wolfram|Alpha
Indeed, solving it analytically is not going to work out.