Let a complete arbitrage-free 1 period market with interest rate R > 0 have a payoff matrix D and initial price vector p.Show that the market given by pay off matrix D-p(1transpose) and inital price vector p is also arbitrage free with rate of interest R - 1.

Note 1 Transpose = (1,1,1 ......) and p=D(pi)

Ive been told that I need to show it for a general case,I know I have to inverse the matrix but dont know what values to put in for the matrix D which isnt given in the question.