If I have: -> (n-r-1)!(n-r+1)! -> (n-r+1) (n-r) [(n-r-1)!]^2 would that be right?
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Originally Posted by Gul If I have: $\displaystyle (n-r-1)!(n-r+1)! = (n-r+1) (n-r) [(n-r-1)!]^2$ would that be right? Yes.
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