Can anyone detail the steps to help me understand why:
Sum( (Xi - X-bar)^2 )/n (where the sum is 1 to n)
equals
(Sum ( (Xi)^2) - n*x-bar^2) / n where the summation is 1 to n.
I know this must be simple algebra but I cant seem to see it!
Any help with the logic/steps is appreciated
Thanks!


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