Hello,

If I understand your problem right, you want to prove this property by mathematical induction(?):

I assume that you know how to do MI:

1. Prove for n = 1: is true.

2. Assume that is true.

3. Prove that the step from n to (n+1) is true under the assumption:

. Now we add which is possible because of the <= sign!

. Cancel out the equal factors:

Thus this property is true for all

EB