If p , q and r positive real numbers , with at least one of them less than unity , prove that (1-p)(1-q)(1-r)>1-p-q-r
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Originally Posted by mathaddict If p , q and r positive real numbers , with at least one of them less than unity , prove that (1-p)(1-q)(1-r)>1-p-q-r after expanding the LHS, your inequality becomes: dividing by gives us: which is true because we have that at least one of is bigger than 1.
Originally Posted by NonCommAlg after expanding the LHS, your inequality becomes: dividing by gives us: which is true because we have that at least one of is bigger than 1. Thanks a lot , sorry for not posting this in my main post , what does "less than unity " mean , is it greater than 1 ?
Originally Posted by mathaddict what does "less than unity " mean , is it greater than 1 ? Less than unity means less than 1. Unity = 1
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