Results 1 to 2 of 2

- Sep 11th 2008, 03:22 AM #1

- Joined
- Sep 2008
- Posts
- 2

## Is 0.999... the same as 1??

To convert an infinitely recurring decimal to a fraction looks reasonably easy, e.g.:

let n = 0.222... (i)

then 10n = 2.222... (ii)

therefore 9n = (ii) - (i) = 2 ; so n = 2/9

Thats why they say: if it's a single digit recurring, just put it over 9. But this means that 0.999... = 9/9 = 1!

I can see that, for all practical purposes, this is so, but surely if we're being rigorous 0.999... is not 1; it never quite gets there.

This make suspect that the whole system of conversion is suspect. I even think that a recurring decimal didn't ought to be classed as a "rational" number because it can't properly be expressed as a fraction. My thinking must be flawed. Please help me before I go mad.

- Sep 11th 2008, 03:28 AM #2

- Joined
- Nov 2005
- From
- someplace
- Posts
- 14,972
- Thanks
- 5