If I understand you correctly you want to prove that (n factors, starting at k-n+1)is always divisible by , regardless what k and n are.Originally Posted by dudinka
This is correct, the quotient is which is always an integer.
is it true that any set of tracing numbers (1, 2, 3, 4...) can be divided (no remainder) by the factorial n!, whereas "n" is the numbers of integers in the group ?
example: 3, 4, 5, 6 (n = 4)
can be devided by: 4! = 24.
and how can i prove it...?
thanx a lot !