If I understand you correctly you want to prove that (n factors, starting at k-n+1)is always divisible by , regardless what k and n are.Originally Posted by dudinka
This is correct, the quotient is which is always an integer.
Hi !
is it true that any set of tracing numbers (1, 2, 3, 4...) can be divided (no remainder) by the factorial n!, whereas "n" is the numbers of integers in the group ?
example: 3, 4, 5, 6 (n = 4)
can be devided by: 4! = 24.
and how can i prove it...?
thanx a lot !