Let " " for all (i take to be the positive integers here)

Step 1: Show that is true.

Step 2: Assume is true and show that this implies is true

Then the claim will hold for all by mathematical induction

how did you define the second principle of induction. in a class i am taking we did three forms, and i know of another from a previous class. i want to make sure we are on the same page.Second principle of mathematical induction

n!<n^n for n>1

thank you in advance