Just what the title says, is there a really easy way to get to the solution for this problem
Pasting this screen pic on this assessment won't cut it.
Hello,Originally Posted by Ranger SVO
I don't know if I can show you the easiest way, but with "my way" you get the solution. Maybe this is sufficient(?):
. Expand the nominator to and then multiply both sides by the nominator:
. Now subtract on both sides of this equation:
. After dividing by the coefficint of you'll get:
. That means:
Hello,Originally Posted by topsquark
of course you are curious - but that's what I am too, otherwise I wouldn't have registered to this forum.
1. You maybe have noticed that I am not a native speaker of English.
2. The denominator is called in german "Nenner" what means literally translated "namer". I changed this "namer" into a more Latin form and came up with a brand new word.
Actually, no, I hadn't noticed you aren't a "native" English speaker. Your English is quite good! Anyway, "nominator" is a better guess than anything I'd've come up with. My problem is generally the reverse...German was the main language of Physics when Quantum Mechanics was born, so many of the terms I have to remember are derived from German, of which I only know the word "nein" (which probably isn't even spelled correctly!) (And thank Heavens that the Japanese have backed off in Particle Physics since the 90s. I can deal with having to learn German, but I've heard Japanese is almost as hard to learn as English! )Originally Posted by earboth