So what I gather from that is,

some one has the same odd of winning with 400 out 10000 entries with 10 chances, as someone with 3300 of 10000 entries with only one drawing?

This is what I came up with, because each drawing is indipendent of each other.

Why would this be wrong compared to your answer?

Starting number of entries Drawing number % of winning with 10

Chances

10000 1st 4.000000000%

9999 2nd 4.000400000%

9998 3rd 4.000800100%

9997 4th 4.001200300%

9996 5th 4.001600640%

9995 6th 4.002001001%

9994 7th 4.002401441%

9993 8th 4.002801961%

9992 9th 4.003202562%

9991 10th 4.003603243%

Sum of all 10 drawings 40.018011248

Number of drawings / 10

Sum Divided (/) be the number of chances (10) = 4.0018011248%