If we have $\dfrac{1}{\dfrac{1}{x-a}}$, is it:$\dfrac{1}{1}$ and then divided by $\dfrac{x-a}{1}$, or is it

a)$1$ divided by $\dfrac{1}{x-a}$

b)

?

Because that would be two different results:

a)(1/1)/((x-a)/1) - Wolfram|Alpha

b)1/(1/(x-a) - Wolfram|Alpha