Hi, I am having difficulties simplifying the expression . To obtain like denominators,
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Since (k+1)! = (k+1)k! = (k+1)k(k-1)!,
Hi, The answer according to Maple is . Is it wrong?
Originally Posted by SC313 Is it wrong? No, both are correct. You should review the definition of factorial.
Could you please explain? I still am confused.
Have you reviewed and understood the definition of factorial?
Yes, n! is defined for a positive integer n as n!=n(n-1)...2*1. Is that not what you mean?
Yes, that what I meant. So, if you understand the definition, how can you not see that ?
Originally Posted by SC313 the expression .
Originally Posted by Plato Do you not need like denominators? Should both denominators not be ? It seems it would be I just really am frustrated and confused.
Example: Edit: In other words, they already had like denominators, but So, if you multiply by , you don't get .
Last edited by SlipEternal; Nov 1st 2013 at 09:09 PM.
Originally Posted by SC313 Hi, I am having difficulties simplifying the expression . To obtain like denominators, Notice that , so the lowest common denominator is , or just . So
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