The answer is but I can't see how they're coming to this answer...
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Originally Posted by uperkurk
The answer is but I can't see how they're coming to this answer... If then is same as .
Originally Posted by Plato If then . How can I know that ? Also can you show me how exactly you got from to
The reason for " " is that, in that case, the fraction on the left is not defined.
And you go from one equation to the other by multiplying both sides by 3(x+ 8), the product of the two denominators.
Last edited by HallsofIvy; March 26th 2013 at 11:11 AM.
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