You can't show that ?
"show satisfies for all ". i don't know how to show it. i can see that it is true but i can't see how to approach it. i have tried a few things like writing one expression in terms of the other etc. but it doesn't get me where i need to be. can someone give me a pointer please? thank you
i can convince myself, but i am not sure of what is allowed for a formal proof. what you wrote is where i started from, then took out the 1/9 fraction of the lhs, cancelled down, but i wasn't sure what i was left with was a valid proof. even though it was 'obvious' that it is so. it is possible i am overcomplicating it in my mind. would it be ok to just use 'this implies...' etc. and then as n is positive the resultant inequality is always true, just state that as so?
i absolutely comprehend fully what you're saying. that is what i did. i just was unaware of how to really set it out. i don't really know how to 'say' the answer. it's not something i have experienced much submitting a problem like this, but as i say, it's not a problem of understanding it myself, rather what is the technical language to write up an answer here? for i can see that one inequality implies the other, and that the resultant inequality is 'true' always.
I would write the solution to this problem as follows.
thanks very much. i think i had nothing to worry about then because what you have written resembles what i first did. i'm very happy that you have given this response because it confirms to me there is not something else i have to look for.