I just read that the angle between two lines with gradients m' and m'' can be found by:
tan(angle) = (m'' - m')/(a+(m'm''))
In try to prove this I saw that the angle can also be found by:
angle = invtan(m'') - invtan(m') which seems much simpler
Is this correct and if so why would we bother with the first formula?


1Thanks
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