if the paper says: Domain = reals, then isn't the range also {y: y= reals}?
thanks
please! this is urgent
no. it depends on the question. the domain and the range are two different things, they are not always equal.
for instance, for $\displaystyle y = x^2$, the domain is all real x, but the range is all real y that are greater than or equal to zero. so $\displaystyle dom(y) = ( -\infty, \infty)$ and $\displaystyle ran(y) = [0, \infty)$