We have recurrent sequence of integer number a1,a2,... a1=1, a2=2 an=3a(n-1)+5a(n-2) for n=3,4,5,... Is integer number k>=2, that a(k+1)*a(k+2) mod ak = 0 ? Please for quick help![]()
We will show thatfor all
this is true for
now accept induction. Say
then
and
. Now if
(by contradiction) then
thus
. It remains to show that none of the numbers in this sequence ever are divisible by 3. Again accept induction. Say
is divisible by 3 this means
by induction. Which is an impossibility.