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Thread: Relationship between "mark-up" function and payout formula

  1. #1
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    Dunedin New Zealand
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    Relationship between "mark-up" function and payout formula

    Hey guys, I'm a new user here and its my first post, so go easy.

    I am currently starting a small investigation out of my own curiosity.



    It's in regards to the pricing (or mark-up) of a share price. Specifically for a piece of action in a poker player (similar to betting on a horse).

    The method of calculating payouts to share-holders is called "stakeback" here is the formulae:

    Stakeback - Online Poker Staking - ChipMeUp
    (There is also a calculator tool for it)

    I am trying to explore the relationship of this "Mark-Up" and "Stakeback"



    If you need more context I strongly recommend watching this video (THIS IS NOT ADVERTISING, I don't want you to sign up to the site, its just the easiest way for my to explain the scope and context).

    What is ChipMeUp - YouTube (Please pay closest attention from 2mins onwards)



    Basically my hypothesis goes along the lines of - The feature of being able to add mark-up, is nullified/zero'd if you use the Stakeback payout method.


    So far I've been playing with making certain variables zero, and I've been getting interesting results, I was starting to just run a lot of simulations with it at different mark-ups.

    Assistance is required from someone with good math and logic, and good common sense.
    I can share some of my examples/simulations to help you better understand what I am trying to work out.

    please please HELP!
    Would be best to post here first and then either use PM/EMAIL/SKYPE to communicate, or if someone works it out easy enough they mite be able to just explain it here.
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  2. #2
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    Jul 2012
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    Dunedin New Zealand
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    Re: Relationship between "mark-up" function and payout formula

    * If this is in wrong section, i am sorry and please move it, thx mods *
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