I´ve found a strange and difficult to prove formula that derived from two quadratic equations.
"If two quadratic equations: and share one solution.
then: .......(1) is always true."
If they are equivalent, It is known that their coefficients are proportional: .
since the two quadratic equations above share just one solution, I suppose they are partially equivalent.
I've been trying to prove the formula in (1). I apologize for the lack of content about the problem.
Any suggestion will be appreciated.