This is to do with some infinite summation work that we are going through at college at the moment. We have the function tn = ((x ln a)n)/n! and have been substituting in different x and a values to determine a general statement for the infinite summation of the function. I have found that Sn = ax

I need to do a formal proof for this general statement and heard that a Taylor series would be able to do that. If anyone would be able to start me off on this, send me in a different direction, or simply contribute to this thread then I would be extremely appreciative.

Thanks,
mbeaumont99