Trying to understand why the 3 is multiplied by the (2+1) before the division? Is this a universally understood precedence or not? Saw on Wikipedia that Wolfram Alpha considers this not the case as a parenthesis discounts the implied multiplication???
Thanks for your reply Wilmer, that was my first thought - it would need another set of brackets to force the multiplication before the division but i have been marked wrong and my university lecturer in Algebra has told me that implied multiplication precedes the division?