If the difference of two variables is finite, can you assume that each of the variables themselves are finite??

for instance, if x - y < infinity, can you assume that both x and y are finite?

thanks for the help!

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- Aug 12th 2011, 12:58 AMfallingleaves75If the difference of two variables is finite.....
If the difference of two variables is finite, can you assume that each of the variables themselves are finite??

for instance, if x - y < infinity, can you assume that both x and y are finite?

thanks for the help! - Aug 12th 2011, 01:09 AMSironRe: If the difference of two variables is finite.....
You've an undefined form $\displaystyle \infty-\infty$, what you can say is:

$\displaystyle \infty-a=\infty$ where $\displaystyle a\in \mathbb{R}$

$\displaystyle a-\infty=-\infty$ where $\displaystyle a\in \mathbb{R}$

If two variables are finite then their difference is finite. - Aug 12th 2011, 01:39 AMCaptainBlackRe: If the difference of two variables is finite.....