# Thread: Gauss-Jordan reduction inverse

1. ## Gauss-Jordan reduction inverse

Carry the Gauss-Jordan reduction of
0 4 2
1 2 0
2 0 -2

far enough to show that it has no inverse.

The steps I've done thus far are:
swap row 1 and 2
Row3-(2*row1)
(1/4)*row2

and i got as my matrix:
1 2 0|0 1 0
1 1 1/2|1/4 0 0
0 -4 2| 0 -2 1

Is that the furthest I can go? and what signifies exactly that there is no inverse?