Carry the Gauss-Jordan reduction of

0 4 2

1 2 0

2 0 -2

far enough to show that it has no inverse.

The steps I've done thus far are:

swap row 1 and 2

Row3-(2*row1)

(1/4)*row2

and i got as my matrix:

1 2 0|0 1 0

1 1 1/2|1/4 0 0

0 -4 2| 0 -2 1

Is that the furthest I can go? and what signifies exactly that there is no inverse?

Thanks in advance