if f:R-R is given by f(x)=(x+3)/2 and g:R-R given by g(x)=2x-3 is f(inverse)=g
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Well, swap the $\displaystyle \displaystyle x$ and $\displaystyle \displaystyle y$ in $\displaystyle \displaystyle f(x)$, and see if you can rearrange it to get $\displaystyle \displaystyle g(x)$.
Or more fundamentally, use the definition of "inverse function". Are f(g(x))= x and g(f(x))= x for all x?
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