No, it's incorrect.
Remember that $\displaystyle \displaystyle \frac{a}{b} \div \frac{c}{d} = \frac{a}{b} \times \frac{d}{c}$.
You should also note that there is a common factor in the second fraction which you can cancel, and will make the problem unwravel...
Hello Andyboy,
Putting Provit post into math english .When you divide by a fraction you multiply by the inverse of that fraction.
Example 1/2 divided by 3/4 = 1/2 times 4/3 = 4/6 = 2/3.
In this problem do the same and simplify. You should arrive at the simple answer
bjh