Please allow me to continue being a skeptic. I am having some mental block.
Why is it that if,
are roots of
, then
? The converse is obviously true. I mean that we are completely used to this, but since the question is so basic, the proof should be similarly low-level, based on simple arithmetic facts.


Because the set of all polynomials, p(x), of degree two or less, such thatand
, forms a one-dimensional subspace of the vector space of all polynomials of degree two or less. And that is, in my opinion, based on very "low level arthmetic facts"- it's just tedious to say without using the "vector space" terminology.
Let's consider only polynomials of degree 2 or less.
This says that there exists a polynomialswith the following property. For every
,
iff there exists an
such that
.
This fact it pretty similar to the original claim thatiff
. The question is why it holds.
The temptation is precisely to resort to more complex facts, but it is not clear that this does not involve circular reasoning. I would like to see a proof from simpler facts.
Here is one way, inspired by Little Bézout's theorem. Supposeand
and
are the only roots of
. Then, one can check directly that
Indeed, the right-hand side expands to, but since
is a root,
.
The roots of the left-hand side areand
, and the roots of the right-hand side are
and
. Therefore,
.
Thank you, emakarov, HallsofIvy, and Ithaka/
I have another question.
I was able to solve the problem;
In the above equation, solvewhen
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Whenor
Whenor
I don't understand whyin both circumstances (
and
)
I know you can say that because the problem says "when", but I'm not satisfied with that answer.
I think I may be content if I do the same problem with a different way of approaching it...