Correct me if I'm wrong, but this would not always produce an integer y for any real positive x.
Originally Posted by skeeter
I don't think that a 1-1 map is possible since the domain is an uncountable set and the range is countable.
Is there a proof or theorem somewhere that says or implies that if "the domain is an uncountable set and the range is countable" then there can be no "one to one map " ? I'd be very interested in that.