Hi everyone,
Can you help me to prove that
(1-b^(m+1))(-(b+1))/b^2<(1+b+b^2+b^3+...+b^m)
in logestic way
If you can try to answer me today because I have exam tomorrow in it
Thanks for any helping
Do you mean, for :
Note that if then it is trivial.
Assume that then:
If then and hence:
Which is true because LHS is negative and RHS is positive.
If then and hence*:
Thus,
Thus,
Which is true.
*)It also depends when is even or odd, but those a minor details.
Wow. My will merely states that I'm of sound mind and body. (Hard to believe, I know!) Can you send me a copy of your will so I can see how you do that?